July 19th, 2021
This entry was posted on Monday, July 19th, 2021 at 7:03 am and is filed under Holy Quran study. You can follow any responses to this entry through the RSS 2.0 feed. Both comments and pings are currently closed.
Miracles, Myths, Mistakes and Matters — See Title Page and List of Contents
See: Project Rebuttal: What the West needs to know about Islam
Refuting the gross distortion and misrepresentation of the Quran, the Prophet Muhammad and Islam, made by the critics of Islam
Read: Background to the Project
List of all Issues | Summary 1 | Summary 2 | Summary 3
Please see the questions and answers below.
This entry was posted on Monday, July 19th, 2021 at 7:03 am and is filed under Holy Quran study. You can follow any responses to this entry through the RSS 2.0 feed. Both comments and pings are currently closed.
From Amna:
AOA
My search for meanings of Arabic term Salah/Salaat returned links and this was one of them
https://quranguideblog.wordpress.com/2017/06/04/how-to-perform-salaah-%d8%b5%d9%84%d8%a7%db%83-mentioned-in-the-quran/
HOW TO PERFORM “SALAAH “صلاۃ” MENTIONED IN THE QURAN?
and i have found articles which question meanings of so many Arabic words in translation of Quran
articles
https://quranguideblog.wordpress.com/category/articles/
are we following Persian words and their meanings in Arabic Quran?
https://quranguideblog.wordpress.com/2018/09/28/did-jesus-exist-was-virgin-mary-the-mother-of-jesus-did-jesus-have-a-father-or-was-he-born-without-having-a-father-are-names-of-prophets-in-the-quran-adjectives-or-proper-names/
DID JESUS EXIST – WAS VIRGIN MARY THE MOTHER OF JESUS – DID JESUS HAVE A FATHER OR WAS HE BORN WITHOUT HAVING A FATHER? ARE NAMES OF PROPHETS IN THE QURAN ADJECTIVES OR PROPER NAMES? HOW REVELATIONS USED TO COME TO THE PROPHETS?
pls go through his articles and share your observation. I look fwd to hear from you.
Thanks
Amna
From Zahid Aziz:
We don't need to go into this too deeply. Just read a typical sentence from the above links:
"Therefore, the Quran was translated by such perverted evils who have concealed its actual message and gave us the fake beliefs and filth of polytheist paganism, which we have been carrying in the name of Islam."
Despite the fact that we disagree with other translators on some points (e.g. Abdullah Yusuf Ali, Pickthall, Muhammad Asad, anyone else you can think of) we would never, ever, make such accusations against them.
This very mentality of this writer is enough proof against his views.
From Amna:
why do we use Persian terms for salaat/Soum (Namaas/roza)?
I understand your point too. however, why did traditional translators use persian root words instead of Arabic root words?
there is an article on his site about Miraj (verse ( 17:1) It claims Masjid aqsa was built after 70 years of prophet's death as an historical fact. then how come prophet visited it ? why do we translate masjid as mosque ?
he offered different translation of arabic term masjid aqsa yet all translators consider it as a mosque?
https://quranguideblog.wordpress.com/2020/06/01/verse-17_1/
how can we decide who is right and who is wrong. when we have no knowledge of arabic language. he sounds logical and has given many examples for these words' usage in arabic language.
if he is right then he has right to say that most translators did it either intentionally or were not competent enough to translate. if he is wrong then those who know language well should write to refute it.
From Zahid Aziz:
We use Persian terms for the same reason as we here in this blog are communicating in English! Persian was the language of the educated Muslims of India. Just as in English we use prayer for Salaat and fasting for saum, similarly Muslims of India used namaz and roza. The same Muslims of India and Pakistan, when translating the Quran into English, used 'prayer' and 'fasting', and not namaz or roza because they were writing in English.
Marmaduke Pickthall and Muhammad Asad were both 'traditional translators'. They could not have been influenced by Persian root words, as probably they did not even know Persian.
The blog you are referred to is full of absolute absurdities. In one article it is claimed that 'messenger' (rasul) means the message sent to every nation, and not a person or a nabi. But the Quran says:
"Muhammad is the Messenger of Allah" (48:29).
" so that the Messenger and those who believed with him said: When will the help of Allah come?" (2:214) The messenger talks like his followers talk!
"and surely thou art of the messengers" (2:252). Is Allah addressing a message or a person as "you"?
"The Messenger believes in what has been revealed to him from his Lord" (2:285). How can "a message" have anything revealed to it, and how can a message believe anything?
"And Muhammad is but a messenger — messengers have already passed away before him." (3:144). The messenger is Muhammad!
"When you went away far, and paid no heed to anyone, and the Messenger was calling you in your rear." (3:154) How can "a message" be calling you from behind?
"Certainly Allah conferred a favour on the believers when He raised among them a Messenger from among themselves, reciting to them His messages" (3:164). The messenger (rasul) is from among the people, and the message is what he recites!
"And We have sent thee to mankind as a Messenger" (4:79). Who is Allah addressing here? Can you talk to a message?
"believe in Allah and His Messenger and the Book which He has revealed to His Messenger" (4:136). Can "messenger" here mean the message"?
"O Messenger, let not those grieve thee who hasten to disbelief," (5:41). How can "a message" grieve?
"O Messenger, deliver that which has been revealed to thee from thy Lord; and if thou do (it) not, thou hast not delivered His message." (5:67)
"And Moses said: O Pharaoh, surely I am a messenger from the Lord of the worlds," (7:104)
"Say: O mankind, surely I am the Messenger of Allah to you all, of Him" (7:158)
"Then Allah sent down His calm upon His Messenger and upon the believers" (9:26). How do you send down calm on a message?
" And of them are those who molest the Prophet (nabi) … And those who molest the Messenger (rasul) of Allah, for them is a painful chastisement" (9:61). This shows that the "nabi" was the "rasul".
"And they say: What a Messenger is this? He eats food and goes about in the markets." (25:7) " And We did not send before thee any messengers but they surely ate food and went about in the markets." (25:20)
I could go on and on showing that rasul according to the Quran is a person.
And can anyone seriously suggest that it cannot be proved from the Quran that Jesus was a person who existed?
"And when Jesus, son of Mary, said: O Children of Israel, surely I am the messenger of Allah to you, verifying that which is before me of the Torah and giving the good news of a Messenger who will come after me, his name being Ahmad." (61:6) Are "Jesus" and "Ahmad" names of messages and not persons?
From Zahid Aziz:
"Those who follow the Messenger-Prophet (al-rasul, al-nabi), the Ummi, whom they find mentioned in the Torah and the Gospel." (7:157)
Here the Holy Prophet Muhammad is called both rasul and nabi. So he was a rasul just as he was a nabi.
"Muhammad is not the father of any of your men, but he is the Messenger (rasul) of Allah and the Seal of the prophets." (33:40)
This is talking about a person who has no male children but he is the Messenger of Allah, and also one of the prophets.
The idea is absolutely false and without any basis whatsoever that according to the Quran the Holy Prophet was only a nabi and that rasul in the Quran means the message which he brought and not the person of the Holy Prophet.
From Amna:
Thanks for your reply.
I'll explore further. I understand message is to be delivered by someone. if rasul is message then what should be term for the medium/person through which it was delivered.
From Citylex Solicitors:
Zahid Aziz quoted the false traditional translations of the Quran. First read all articles of Dr Kashif Khan which he has written on Rasool, including his articles on Muhammad (part 1 and 2) then look at the Arabic words of all those verses of the Quran in which the word Rasool occurred and match the existing translation of these verses. You will find that where our scholars translated "YOU" in these verses it is actually "YOUR" and "YOURS" but to make the Rasool a human being all translators replaced objective pronouns "YOUR" and "YOURS" with "YOU". Also, the Quran does not use the name Muhammad but Muhammadun and Muhammadin which is not a name of a person but an adjective. Have you practically heard anyone calling someone Muhammadun or Muhammadin? Do Arabs call the crown prince Muhammadun bin Silemanun? Or did Arabs ever called Aliyyun Abi Talibun, Uthmanun bin Affanun or Abubakrun Siddiqun????
In fact the call Kursiyyun and Kitabun etc. Moreover, all verses of containing the word Rasool are coming in the context of revelation or book. Furthermore, the person who retrieves revelation is called Nabi in the Quran and also in all Semitic languages including Arabic.
So, all of you need to learn the Quran from its own words.
This is the subtract of Dr Kashif Khan's research articles which you should read if you really want to know what is actually written in the Arabic text of the Quran.
Thank you.
From Zahid Aziz:
Let me take just three examples from the verses which I had quoted, and you can show us how “you” can be changed to “your”:
“and surely thou art of the messengers” (2:252)
“And We have sent thee to mankind as a Messenger” (4:79)
“O Messenger, let not those grieve thee who hasten to disbelief,” (5:41)
Please show us your translation of these.
Your argument that “Muhammad” is something different from “Muhammadun” and “Muhammadin” simply shows your lack of knowledge of Arabic. The word “Muhammad” cannot exist without a nunation at the end.
The Quran says: Muhammad-un rasul Allah, “Muhammad is the Messenger of Allah, and those with him are …” (48:29). What else can this mean except that Muhammad is a person who is messenger of Allah and he has people with him?
You have asked: “Or did Arabs ever called Aliyyun Abi Talibun, Uthmanun bin Affanun or Abubakrun Siddiqun????”
“Ali” in Arabic is always with -un, -in or -an at the end. The same applies to Talib and Bakr.
It is easiest to give examples from books of Hadith of this. You may not believe in Hadith, but they were compiled by Arabs and you have asked “did Arabs ever ????”.
We have in Tirmidhi:أَنَا دَارُ الْحِكْمَةِ وَعَلِيٌّ بَابُهَا
“I am the house of wisdom and Ali is its door” (hadith 3723). “Ali” here is “Aliyyun” in Arabic!
Here is Talib in Bukhari, hadith 6572, as Talib-in:
The name Abu Bakr always has -in at the end, as for example in Bukhari, hadith 3385:
The names Hasan and Husain (unless preceded by al-) have nunation at the end. This is from a hadith which says that the Holy Prophet “saw Hasan and Husain”:
It says: Hasan-an and Husain-an.